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2016 Oct 400-101 ccie written exam price:

Q461. Refer to the exhibit. 


If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server? 

A. R2 

B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3 

C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4 

D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

NTP uses a concept called “stratum” that defines how many NTP hops away a device is from an authoritative time source. For example, a device with stratum 1 is a very accurate device and might have an atomic clock attached to it. Another NTP server that is using this stratum 1 server to sync its own time would be a stratum 2 device because it’s one NTP hop further away from the source. When you configure multiple NTP servers, the client will prefer the NTP server with the lowest stratum value. 

Reference: https://networklessons.com/network-services/cisco-network-time-protocol-ntp/ 


Q462. Refer to the exhibit. 


All switches are Cisco switches. Assume that Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled only on switches A and C. 

Which information is returned when you issue the command show cdp neighbors on switch C? 

A. a limited amount of information about switch B 

B. no neighbor details will be returned 

C. neighbor details for switch B 

D. neighbor details for switch A 

E. neighbor details for switch C 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

CDP is used to discover information on directly connected neighbors only, so in this case SwitchC would only be able to obtain CDP information from SwitchB. However, since SwitchB is not running CDP then no neighbor information will be seen on SwitchC. Same goes for Switch A also in this topology. 


Q463. Refer to the exhibit. 


What will be the extended community value of this route? 

A. RT:200:3000 RT:200:9999 

B. RT:200:9999 RT:200:3000 

C. RT:200:3000 

D. RT:200:9999 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Here the route map is being used to manually set the extended community RT to 200:9999 


Q464. Which ICMP message type is used to assist path MTU discovery? 

A. destination unreachable 

B. redirect message 

C. source quench 

D. time exceeded 

Answer: A 


Q465. Which command drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value, and also causes the Security Violation counter to increment? 

A. switchport port-security violation protect 

B. switchport port-security violation drop 

C. switchport port-security violation shutdown 

D. switchport port-security violation restrict 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

When configuring port security violation modes, note the following information: 

. protect—Drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value. 

. restrict—Drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value and causes the SecurityViolation counter to increment. 

. shutdown—Puts the interface into the error-disabled state immediately and sends an SNMP trap notification. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/port_sec.html 


Latest 400-101 cisco ccie written:

Q466. What is a disadvantage of using aggressive mode instead of main mode for ISAKMP/IPsec establishment? 

A. It does not use Diffie-Hellman for secret exchange. 

B. It does not support dead peer detection. 

C. It does not support NAT traversal. 

D. It does not hide the identity of the peer. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

IKE phase 1's purpose is to establish a secure authenticated communication channel by using the Diffie–Hellman key exchange algorithm to generate a shared secret key to encrypt further IKE communications. This negotiation results in one single bi-directional ISAKMP Security Association (SA). The authentication can be performed using either pre-shared key (shared secret), signatures, or public key encryption.Phase 1 operates in either Main Mode or Aggressive Mode. Main Mode protects the identity of the peers; Aggressive Mode does not. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_Key_Exchange 


Q467. Refer to the exhibit. 


While troubleshooting high CPU utilization on one of your Cisco Catalyst switches, you find that the issue is due to excessive flooding that is caused by STP. What can you do to prevent this issue from happening again? 

A. Disable STP completely on the switch. 

B. Change the STP version to RSTP. 

C. Configure PortFast on port-channel 1. 

D. Configure UplinkFast on the switch. 

E. Configure PortFast on interface Gi0/15. 

Answer: E 

Explanation: 

Topology Changes (TC) should be a rare event in a well-configured network. When a link on a switch port goes up or down, there is eventually a TC, once the STP state of the port is changing to or from forwarding. When the port is flapping, this would cause repetitive TCs and flooding. 

Ports with the STP portfast feature enabled will not cause TCs when going to or from the forwarding state. The configuration of portfast on all end-device ports (such as printers, PCs, and servers) should limit TCs to a low amount and is highly recommended. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/28943-170.html 


Q468. With which ISs will an IS-IS Level 1 IS exchange routing information? 

A. Level 1 ISs 

B. Level 1 ISs in the same area 

C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs 

D. Level 2 ISs 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

IS-IS differs from OSPF in the way that "areas" are defined and routed between. IS-IS routers are designated as being: Level 1 (intra-area); Level 2 (inter area); or Level 1-2 (both). Level 2 routers are inter area routers that can only form relationships with other Level 2 routers. Routing information is exchanged between Level 1 routers and other Level 1 routers, and Level 2 routers only exchange information with other Level 2 routers. Level 1-2 routers exchange information with both levels and are used to connect the inter area routers with the intra area routers. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IS-IS 


Q469. Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the routing table? 

A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

A. Option A 

B. Option B 

C. Option C 

D. Option D 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Advertise maps are used for conditional routing to advertise specified prefixes if something which is specified in exist map exists. In our question we need to advertise 172.16.0.0/24 if 10.10.10.10/32 exists in the routing table so we have to use commanD. “neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map <prefix-list of 172.16.0.0/24> exist-map <prefix-list of 10.10.10.10/32>”. Therefore B is correct. 


Q470. Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true? 

A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID. 

B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects the route into the AS. 

C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator ID to its own router ID. 

D. The originator ID is set to match the cluster ID. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

An RR reflecting the route received from a RR-Client adds: 

. Originator ID- a 4-byte BGP attribute that is created by the RR. This attribute carries the Router ID of the originator of the route in the local AS. If the update comes back to the originator, it ignores the update. 

. Cluster List- A Cluster List is a list of Cluster IDs that an update has traversed. When a route reflector sends a route received from a client to a non-client, it appends the local Cluster ID. If a route reflector receives a route whose Cluster List contains the local Cluster ID, it ignores the update. 

Reference: https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/bgp/bgp-route-reflectors